PHYSICS (CODE-C3)
1.
In a Young’s double slit experiment the slit
separation is 0.5 m from the slits. For a monochromatic light of wavelength 500
nm, the distance of 3rd maxima from 2nd
minima on the other side is
1) 2.5 mm 2) 2.25 mm 3) 2.75 mm 4) 22.5 mm
Ans: [0]
2.
Calculate
the focal length of a reading glass of a person if his distance of distinct
vision is 75cm.
1) 37.5
cm 2) 100.4 cm 3) 25.6 cm 4) 75.2 cm
Ans: [1]
3.
A person wants a real image of his own, 3
times enlarged. Where should he stand infront of a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 30 cm?
1) 30 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 90 cm
Ans: [2]
4.
If ε0 and
μ0 are
the permittivity and permeability of free space and and are the corresponding
quantities for a medium, then refractive index of the medium is
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1)
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2)
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Insufficient
information
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0 0
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3)
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0
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0
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4)
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1
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Ans: [1]
5.
The
average power dissipated in a pure inductor is
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1) VI2
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2) zero
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3)
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1
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VI
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4)
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VI2
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2
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4
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Ans: [2]
6.
An -particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered
through 180o by
gold nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of
1) 10 12cm 2) 10 16cm 3) 10 10cm 4) 10 14cm
Ans: [1]
7.
Find
the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
1) 102 pm 2) 124 pm 3) 95 pm 4) 112 pm
Ans: [4]
8.
Light of two different frequencies whose
photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively, successively illuminate a
metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV. Ratio of maximum speeds of
emitted electrons will be
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 5 4) 1 : 2
Ans: [4]
9.
The polarizing angle of glass is 57o . A
ray of light which is incident at this angle will have an angle of refraction
as
1) 33o 2) 38o 3) 25o 4) 43o
Ans: [1]
10.
To
observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
1) should be /2 . Where
is the wavelength
2) should be of the
order of wavelength
3) has no relation to
wavelength
4) should
be much larger than the wavelength Ans: [2]
11.
A
radioactive decay can form an isotope of the original nucleus with the emission
of particle
1) one and two 2) four and one
3) one and four 4) one and one
Ans: [1]
12.
The half life of a radioactive substance is
20 minutes. The time taken between 50% decay and 87.5% decay of the substance
will be
1) 40
minutes 2) 10 minutes 3) 30 minutes 4) 25 minutes
Ans: [1]
13.
A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear
parts having radii in the ratio 1 : 2. Their velocities are in the ratio
1) 6 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 8 : 1 4) 4 : 1
Ans: [3]
14.
What is the wavelength of light for the least
energetic photon emitted in the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum. (taken
hc = 1240 eV nm)
1) 102 nm 2) 150 nm 3) 82 nm 4) 122 nm
Ans: [4]
15.
If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from an
orbit of level n = 3 to an orbit of level n = 2, the emitted radiation has a
frequency (R = Rydberg constant, C = Velocity of light)
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1)
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RC
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2)
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5RC
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3)
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3RC
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4)
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8RC
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25
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36
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27
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9
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Ans: [2]
16.
The circuit has two oppositely connected
ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in the circuit?
1) 2.0 A 2) 1.33 A 3) 1.71 A 4) 2.31 A
Ans: [3]
17.
Amplitude
modulation has
1) one carrier
2) one carrier with high
frequency
3) one carrier with two
side band frequencies
4) one carrier with
infinite frequencies
Ans: [3]
18.
An LED is constructed from a pn junction
based on a certain semi-conducting material whose energy gap is 1.9 eV. Then
the wavelength of the emitted light is
1) 1.6 10 8 m 2) 9.1 10 5 m 3) 2.9 10 9 m 4) 6.5 10 7 m
Ans: [4]
19.
The
wave used for line-of-sight (LOS) communication is
1) space waves 2) sky waves
3) ground waves 4) sound waves
Ans: [1]
20.
The
given truth table is for
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Input
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Output
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A
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B
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Y
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0
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0
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1
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0
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1
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1
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1
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0
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1
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1
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1
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0
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3) AND gate
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4) NAND gate
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1) OR gate
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2) NOR gate
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Ans: [4]
21.
The
input characteristics of a transistor in CE mode is the graph obtained by
plotting
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1)
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IB
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against
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VCE
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at constant
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VBE
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2)
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IB
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against
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IC
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at constant
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VBE
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3)
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IB
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against
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VBE
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at constant
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VCE
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4)
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IB
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against
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IC
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at constant
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VCE
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Ans: [3]
22.
A particle is projected with a velocity v so
that its horizontal range twice the greatest height attained. The horizontal
range is
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1)
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2V2
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2)
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V2
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3)
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V2
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4)
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4V2
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3g
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2g
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g
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5g
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Ans: [4]
23.
The velocity – time graph for two bodies A
and B are shown. Then the acceleration of A and B are in the ratio
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1)
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tan25o
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to
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tan50o
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2)
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cos25o to
cos50o
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3)
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tan25o
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to
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tan40o
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4)
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sin25o to
sin50o
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Ans: [1]
24.
The ratio of the dimensions of Planck
constant and that of moment of inertia has the dimensions of
1)
frequency 2) velocity 3) time 4) angular momentum
Ans: [1]
25.
Moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod
rotating about the perpendicular axis passing through its centre is I. If the
same rod bent into a ring and its moment of inertia about its diameter is I’,
then
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the ratio
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I
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is
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I'
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1) 8/3 2
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2) 5/3
2
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3) 3/2
2
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4) 2/3 2
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Ans: [4]
26.
If the mass of a body is M on the surface of
the earth, the mass of the same body on the surface of the moon is
1) M 2) Zero 3) M/6 4) 6 M
Ans: [1]
27.
The
ratio of angular speed of a second-hand to the hour-hand of a watch is
1) 60 : 1 2) 72 : 1 3) 720 : 1 4) 3600 : 1
Ans: [3]
28.
The
kinetic energy of a body of mass 4kg and momentum 6 Ns will be
1) 3.5 J 2) 5.5 J 3) 2.5 J 4) 4.5 J
Ans: [4]
29.
A stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically
upwards. What is the direction and magnitude of net force on the stone during
its upward motion?
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1) 0.49
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N vertically downwards
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2)
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9.8 N vertically
downwards
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3) 0.49
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N vertically upwards
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4)
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0.98 N vertically
downwards
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Ans: [1]
30.
The ratio of kinetic energy to the potential
energy of a particle executing SHM at a distance equal to half its amplitude,
the distance being measured from its equilibrium position is
1) 4 : 1 2) 8 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 2 : 1
Ans: [3]
31.
1 gram of ice is mixed with 1 gram of steam.
At thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is
1) 100 oC 2) 55 oC 3) 0 oC 4) 50 oC
Ans: [1]
32.
Water
is heated from 0 oC to 10 oC , then its volume
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1) increases
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2) first decreases and then
increases
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3) decreases
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4) does not
change
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Ans:
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[2]
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33.
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The efficiency of
a Carnot engine which operates between the two temperature T1 500K
and
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T2 300K is
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1) 25%
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2) 40%
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3) 50%
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4) 75%
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Ans:
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[2]
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34.
The
ratio of hydraulic stress to the corresponding strain is known as
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1)
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Bulk modulus
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2)
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Rigidity modulus
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3)
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Compressibility
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4)
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Young’s modulus
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Ans: [1]
35.
The
angle between the dipole moment and electric field at any point on the
equatorial plane is
1) 90o 2) 45o 3) 0o 4) 180o
Ans: [4]
36.
Pick
out the statement which is incorrect
1) The electric field
lines forms closed loop
2) Field lines never
intersect
3) The tangent drawn to
a line of force represents the direction of electric field
4) A
negative test charge experiences a force opposite to the direction of the field
Ans: [1]
37.
Two spheres carrying charges +6 C and
+9
C
, separated by a distance d, experiences a force of repulsion F. When a charge
of -3
C
is given to both the sphere and kept at the same distance as before, the new
force of repulsion is
1) 3F 2) F/9 3) F 4) F/3
Ans: [4]
38.
A stretched string is vibrating in the second
overtone, then the number of nodes and antinodes between the ends of the string
are respectively
1) 3 and
2 2) 2 and 3 3) 4 and 3 4) 3 and 4
Ans: [3]
39.
When two tuning forks A and B are sounded
together. 4 beats per second are heard. The frequency of the fork B is 384 Hz.
When one of the prongs of the fork A is filled and sounded with B, the beat
frequency increases, then the frequency of the fork A is
1) 388 Hz 2) 389 Hz 3) 380 Hz 4) 379 Hz
Ans: [1]
40.
Three resistances 2 ,3 and 4 are
connected in parallel. The ratio of currents passing through them when a
potential difference is applied across its ends will be
1) 6 : 4
: 3 2) 4 : 3 : 2 3) 6 : 3 : 2 4) 5 : 4 : 3
Ans: [1]
41.
Four identical cells of emf E and internal
resistance r are to be connected in series. Suppose if one of the cell is
connected wrongly, the equivalent emf and effective internal resistance of the
combination is
1) 4E and
2r 2) 2E and 2r 3) 4E and 4r 4) 2E and 4r
Ans: [4]
42.
A parallel plate capacitor is charged and
then isolated. The effect of increasing the plate separation on charge,
potential and capacitance respectively are
1) increases,
decreases, decreases 2)
constant, increases, decreases
3) constant,
decreases, decreases 4)
constant, decreases, increases
Ans: [2]
43.
A spherical shell of radius 10 cm is carrying
a charge q. If the electric potential at distances 5 cm. 10 cm and 15 cm from
the centre of the spherical shell is V1 ,V2 andV3
respectively, then
1) V1 V2 V3 2) V1 V2 V3 3) V1 V2 V3 4) V1 V2 V3
Ans: [4]
44.
Three point charges 3nC, 6NnC and 9nC are
placed at the corners of an equivalent triangle of side 0.1 m. The potential
energy of the system is
1) 89100
J 2) 99100 J 3) 8910 J 4) 9910 J
Ans: [0]
45.
In the circuit shown below, the ammeter and
the voltmeter reading are 3 A and 6 V respectively. Then the value of the
resistance R is
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
Ans: [4]
46.
Two cells of emf E1 and
E2 are
joined in opposition (such that E1 E2 ).
If r1 and
r2 be
the internal resistance and R be the external resistance, then the terminal
potential difference is
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1)
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E1
+E2
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×R
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2)
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E1
-E2
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×R
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3)
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E1
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+E2
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×R
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4)
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E1
-E2
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×R
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r1
+r2 +R
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r1
+r2 +R
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r1
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+r2
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r1
+r2
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Ans: [2]
47.
A
proton beam enters a magnetic field of 10 4 Wb m 2 normally. If the specific charge of the
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proton
is 1011
C kg-1
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and its velocity
is 109
ms-1
, then the radius of the circle described will be
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1) 10 m
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2) 1 m
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3) 0.1 m
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4) 100 m
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Ans: [4]
48.
Two
concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 πcm are placed right angles to each other. If 3A
and
4A are the currents flowing through the two coils respectively. The magnetic
induction (in Wb m 2 ) at
the centre of the coils will be
1)
10 5 2) 7 10 5 3) 12 10 5 4) 5 10 5
Ans: [4]
49.
The
resistance of the bulb filament is 100 at a
temperature of 100o C . If its temperature co-
efficient of resistance be 0.005 per o
C , its resistance
will become 200 at a temperature
1) 400oC 2) 200oC 3) 300oC 4) 500oC
Ans: [1]
50.
In Wheatstones network P=2
,R=2
and S=3 .
The resistance with which S is to should in order that the bridge may be
balanced is
1) 2 2) 6 3) 1 4) 4
Ans: [2]
51.
Core
of electromagnets are made of ferromagnetic material which has
1) high permeability and
high retentivity
2) low permeability and
low retentivity
3) high permeability and
low retentivity
4) low
permeability and high retentivity Ans: [3]
52.
If
there is no torsion in the suspension thread, then the time period of a magnet
executing SHM is
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1) T=
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1
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I
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2) T=2π
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MB
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3) T=
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1
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MB
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4) T=2π
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I
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2π
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MB
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I
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2π
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I
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MB
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Ans: [4]
53.
Two parallel wires 1 m apart carry currents
of 1 A and 3 A respectively in opposite direction. The force per unit length
acting between these two wires is
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1)
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6×10 -7 Nm-1 attractive
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2)
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6×10 -5
Nm-1
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attractive
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3)
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6×10 -7 Nm-1 repulsive
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4)
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6×10 -5
Nm-1
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repulsive
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Ans: [3]
54.
A galvanometer of resistance 50 gives a full
scale deflection for a current 5×10 -4A .
The resistance that should be connected in series with the galvanometer to read
3 V is
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1) 5050
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2) 5950
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3) 595
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4) 5059
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Ans:
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[2]
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55.
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A cyclotron is used to accelerate
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1) only positively charged particles
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2) both
positively and negatively charged particles
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3) neutron
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4) only negative charged particles
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Ans:
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[1]
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56.
A transformer is used to light 100 W- 110 V
lamp from 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the
transformer is
1) 95% 2) 99% 3) 90% 4) 96%
Ans: [3]
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57.
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In an LCR circuit, at resonance
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1) the impedance is maximum
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2) the current leads the voltage
by / 2
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3) the current
and voltage are in phase
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4) the current is minimum
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Ans:
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[3]
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58.
An aircraft with a wingspan of 40 m flies
with a speed of 1080 km/hr in the eastward direction at a constant altitude in
the northern hemisphere. Where the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic
field 1.75×10 -5T. Then the emf developed
between the tips of the wings is
1) 0.34 V 2) 2.1 V 3) 0.5 V 4) 0.21 V
Ans:
[4]
59.
Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H.
The current changes in the first coil according to the equation i=im sin t
where im =10A and
100 red s 1. The maximum value of the
emf induced in the second coil is
1) 5 2) 4 3) 2 4)
Ans:
[1]
60.
The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic
material at 73 0C is
0.0075 and its value at 173 0C will
be
1) 0.0030 2) 0.0075 3) 0.0045 4) 0.015
Ans:
[4]
Physics_CODE-C3 Page 11
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